View Full Version : Exegetical Annotations of the book of John by Dr. Gadiel Isidro
Ironside
12-03-2007, 02:33 AM
This work is distributed here in Cebu for free by Dr. Gadiel Isidro. Dr. Isidro is a Filipino theologian who graduated with honors in Trinity Evangelical Divinity School in Deerfield Illinois, USA. He is a Hebrew and Greek scholar and is the pastor of El International Church here in Banawa, Cebu, Philippines. He is also the president and lead professor of El International Seminary [a Bible school].
He has written books on theology [a systematic theology of the Christian faith which will be published in the future, Lord willing], Christian discipleship, Annotations of the NT books etc. He once taught in BIOLA . He is now 74 years of age. It is hoped that this scholarly work of his would benefit your soul.
His annotation is not a verse by verse treatment of the book. He has selectively annotated verses that are in line with his objective. This is based on his revision of the King James Version of the Bible in the New Testament. Dr. Isidro after studying and examining carefully the whole New Testament word for word in the original Greek has made a revision of the King James translation of the Bible. Every week a verse will be posted.
Thank you for respecting the thread.
CHAPTER 1
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[Note: The word "Word" above is the word "Logos" in the Greek. Also the wording of the the last clause above of the verse should be: "And God was the Word" as clearly seen when one reads the original]
John 1:1 . The verb “was” from the Greek hn en, being in the imperfect tense in Greek grammar, speaks of the eternality of the Logos. This means that before things began, the Logos was already in existence.
John 1:1 The title Logos is a very important philosophical and theological term. Greek philosophers believed that the Logos was the impersonal power which holds the universe together. Alexandrian philosophers also taught that the Logos was a powerful being, but inferior to the supreme being.
But John wrote that the Logos is a distinct person who is equal in being with God. This is emphasized by the last clause of the verse which states: “…and God was the Word”. The word God in Greek is qeoj Theos. This has no article and it is the first word in the last clause. There is a very important rule in Greek grammar which states that “the presence of the article identifies, but its absence qualifies”. This means that [B]Theos in the last clause describes the Logos as God in His being, not a small god, as some groups teach. He is a distinct person, eternal and equal in being with the Father.
Ironside
12-03-2007, 06:39 AM
Allow me to add my two cents worth:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Here we see a) the pre-existence of the Word [the Lord Jesus Christ] b) the fellowship of the Word with God and c) the Deity of the Word
The pre-existence of the Word
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word,............... ..
In the beginning the Word was already there. Implying that before the beginning of all things, He was already there existing. ETERNAL Word!!!!
The fellowship of the Word with God
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God.............
The word "with" in the Greek connotes fellowship and intimacy. Father, Son and Spirit intimacy.
The Deity of the Word
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The Word Himself was and is God [God the Son].
Ironside
12-10-2007, 01:25 AM
12 But as many as received him, to them he gave authority to become the children of God, those who believe in his name:
John 1:12 The condition for becoming a child of God is to receive the Logos as God. No one will be born again unless that person believes in the deity of the Logos, who is Jesus Christ.
This act of receiving the Logos occurs only once because the tense of the verb “receive” refers to a single action. This is called the “aorist” tense in Greek. Thus after a person has genuinely received the Logos, he is born again permanently.
After he becomes a child of God, he becomes a continuing believer. This is the tense of the phrase “..those who believe…”. In this passage “believing” describes those who received and who have become children of God, not a condition for becoming a child of God, the phrase being a participle.
Ironside
12-10-2007, 01:32 AM
My two cents:
Not all people are children of God. Only those who have trusted in the Savior alone for salvation are God's children. People talk about recieving Christ......how then does one recieve the Lord Jesus Christ?
What the verse is actually talking here is recieving the salvation of Christ. Salvation is bound up in a person [the person of the Lord Jesus Christ]. We recieve Him and His salvation when we appropriate His free offer of salvation by faith------trusting in Him and His finished work on the cross of Calvary.
Ironside
12-10-2007, 01:40 PM
erratum:
I wrote that Dr. Isidro was the president of El International Seminary. It should be :
El Theological Seminary
Thank you for bearing with me.
Ironside
12-12-2007, 08:48 PM
13 Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God
John 1:13 This verse teaches that becoming a child of God is an act only by God and never by the efforts of any human being.
lakandula
12-12-2007, 09:09 PM
John 1:12 The condition for becoming a child of God is to receive the Logos as God. No one will be born again unless that person believes in the deity of the Logos, who is Jesus Christ.
That is definitely true
Ironside
12-12-2007, 09:51 PM
my two cents worth:
13 Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God
The word "born" here does not allude to physical birth. Rather it speaks about spiritual birth [the new birth or being born again]. Being born again is synonymous to being a Christian.
No one becomes a Christian just because he or she is born from Christian parents---not of blood.
We dont become a Christian by our own self determination----I will start going to church, read my Bible, do Christian activities etc. so that I will become a Christian.
I am not a Christian just because other people declare that I am one by their baptizing me, by their confirming me etc.
Being a Christian is of God. It is the work of God. When I trusted in Christ alone for salvation, it was then that I became a Christian---and it was God's work in and for me.
Ironside
12-17-2007, 08:58 PM
14 And the Word became flesh, and tabernacled among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
John 1:14 Some translations render the first clause “and the Word was made flesh”. This passage of course refers to the incarnation of the Logos. But the more accurate translation should be “And the Word became flesh”, the verb “became” is in the active voice. So the Word actively decided to become flesh, thus teaching again that before His
incarnation, He already was in existence as a person.
The more accurate translation should be “he tabernacled” rather than “dwelt”. The tabernacle signified the presence of God. His presence here on earth radiated the presence of God, He was full of grace and truth.
The word “begotten” here does not refer to the beginning of the existence of the Logos, but to his investiture of Messianic and redemptive authority. See Psalms 2:7.
Ironside
12-17-2007, 09:10 PM
14 And the Word became flesh, and tabernacled among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
My two cents:
The Lord Jesus Christ became Man without relinquishing His deity. He was, is and will forever be the God-Man. To atone and become the fit substitute and representative of man, He must become man. He must be God at the same time [He can never reliquish His deity...God will never deny Himself] for His atonement to be of infinite value.
He must be the God-Man for Him to be a perfect Mediator between God and Man. In Him sinful Man and a Holy God meet and are reconciled.
The Jesus of the Bible is one who is both 100% God and 100% Man at the same time. Dont settle for anything less.
Ironside
01-05-2008, 04:44 PM
18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has revealed Him.
John 1:18 The more accurate designation should be “Only Begotten Son” rather than “only begotten God” as found in some contemporary translations. Because as pointed out in v. 14 that the title “begotten” refers to investiture of Messianic and Redemptive authority, then it contradicts the designation of the Son as Messiah and Saviour if we have “only begotten God”. And John 3:16 also states that the Logos is the “Only Begotten Son”.
While other translations have the word “declared”, the Greek verb is ecegeomai eksegeomai which more accurately should be translated “revealed”. The Logos, the Only Begotten Son, revealed the true being of the Father, not just explained or declared.
Ironside
01-05-2008, 04:56 PM
18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has revealed Him.
NO one has seen God at anytime means that no one has seen God IN HIS ESSENCE. God is invisible. Evangelical doctrine on this point are not sure if believers would see God IN HIS ESSENCE when they go to heaven and have their glorified bodies.
When the Old Testament reports that there are people in the Old Testament who have seen God, it does not mean that they have seen God IN HIS ESSENCE. Rather, they saw God's MANIFESTATION of His presence. Moses saw His "back" but never HIS ESSENCE.
There is a sense however that we can see God right now. We can "see" him if we walk in holiness, those who are pure in heart will "see" God. Above all, we can see God in the face of the Lord Jesus Christ.
If you are still a stranger to God....you can come to Him and be His Son if you repent and place your trust in His Son alone for salvation.
Ironside
01-15-2008, 06:25 PM
Joh 1:29 The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, "Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!
Joh 1:36 And looking at Jesus as He walked, he said, "Behold the Lamb of God!"
John 1:29,36 The title “Lamb of God” is also messianic, but the more distinctive emphasis is His redemptive work as also stated in Isaiah 53:6. It is only through the death of Logos as the Lamb of God, that we can be forgiven of our sins.
Ironside
01-15-2008, 06:51 PM
My two cents worth:
The Lord Jesus had to be the sacrificial Lamb---He had to die for the sins of sinners. The penalty of sin is death. And the penalty must be paid. God's just demand against sin must be satisfied. He cannot condone sin neither does He excuse it.
Either we choose to pay for our sins ourselves or we trust in the Lamb of God who died for our sins and rose again for salvation. He had to be the Lamb of God. He had to die for sins penalty. And sinners first and foremost must trust Him in this revealed aspect of Him--the Lamb of God who takes away sins [1 John 3:5].
You can trust in Christ as King but still remained unsaved. You can trust Him as the greatest prophet of God but still remained unsaved. But you cannot remained unsaved when you trust Him as priest and sacrifice for the atonement of sins. The Savior even if He alone qualifies to be the Savior of the world cannot save sinners if He did not die on the cross, He cannot save if He refused to be the sacrificial Lamb of God.
Heb 5:8 though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered.
Heb 5:9 And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him
As God He is perfect in His person. As Man He is perfect in that He is sinless. As Savior of sinners, He must go through the death in Calvary for Him to be the Author of eternal salvation.
The word "perfected" means complete, well-equipped and mature. The Savior without the Cross is incomplete to save sinners. The Cross fully equipped the Savior to save sinners. When the Savior utterred the words: "It is finished" the work of salvation has come to maturity. All saved sinners before the cross were saved on credit as it were. Their animal sacrifices merely covered their sins but it did not take their sins away. It covered their sins not because the blood of animals has any intrinsic atoning value in itself. It covered because of the coming of the sure and effective atonement of sins in the person of the Savior. When the Lamb of God appeared and died on the cross, it was taken away.
The first step in knowing God intimately and meaningfully is know Him as Savior--to know the Lamb of God.
The Lamb of God takes away the SIN of the world---by His death on the cross He rendered positionally ineffective and inoperative the sinful nature of saved sinners. At death or at His Second Coming for His saved people He will take it away away actually. Saved sinners now have two natures: sinful and divine. The former has been condemned at the cross and has been rendered positionally ineffective.
The Lamb of God takes away SINS---by His death on the cross God forgave us from all our sins.
Note: There is a difference between 1 John 3:5 and John 1:29. The former is the forgiveness of our SINS. The latter is the rendering infective the SINFUL NATURE. Sin the root. Sins the fruit.
Ironside
01-22-2008, 08:23 PM
34 And I have seen , and have witnessed that this is the Son of God.
49 Nathanael answered and says to him, Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel.
.
John 1:34, 49 Son of God is another title of the Logos. This speaks of his being as the same with God the Father. See John 5:18.
Ironside
01-22-2008, 08:59 PM
The Lord Jesus' Sonship to the Father denotes equality with the Father not inferiority
The Lord Jesus' being Son to the First person of the Trinity [the Father] does not denote inferiority at all. Rather it talks about them being equal according to the Jewish reckoning. When the Lord Jesus said that God was His unique Father [implying He was the Unique Son] they understood it to mean that the Lord Jesus was claiming equality with God.
Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.
18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
The word "MY" above means MY UNIQUE Father. The Jews understood it then as claiming equality with God. Here the Lord Jesus was indirectly saying that He Himself is God [God the Son].
Christians are God's adopted sons through faith in Christ Jesus while the Lord Jesus was God's unique [only begotten] Son from eternity. He was never adopted.
The Lord Jesus' Sonship to the Father emphasizes their unique relationship with each other not inferioty
The term "Son" when referring to the Lord Jesus Christ refers to His relationship with the Father. It describes the kind of relationship the Second Person of the Godhead to the First. It does not mean that He [the Second Person of the Godhead] was created by the First Person. It simply describes a relationship.
I have an 83 year old friend in the U.S. I am not in anyway biologically related to him. Yet, I call him "Dad".
And he relates to me as though i am his son. Our value as a person, as a human being is equal. We are both priceless. But our relationship with each other is a Father-Son relationship.
God the Father and God the Son in essence are equal but their relationship is that of Father and Son. As Man He is subordinate to God the Father. [No man is greater than God right?]
As God He is equal to the Father.
As Man, the Father is greater than Him.
As God, they are both equal.
NemoySpruce
01-22-2008, 10:30 PM
As God He is equal to the Father.
As Man, the Father is greater than Him.
As God, they are both equal.
I dont think so. Jesus (by your logic) is more than the Father because he is both God and man. The father is only God. He is not a man. But Jesus lived as a man. So he is more than God.... . As a man, he is still more than God, because he is still God, but in man form. So his inferiority is transient, but in essence he is more than God, because he is God and man at the same time.
Ironside
01-23-2008, 01:37 AM
I dont think so. Jesus (by your logic) is more than the Father because he is both God and man. The father is only God. He is not a man. But Jesus lived as a man. So he is more than God.... . As a man, he is still more than God, because he is still God, but in man form. So his inferiority is transient, but in essence he is more than God, because he is God and man at the same time.
Yes, my friend the Lord Jesus is more than what He originally was. Besides being the Son of God, He was also the Son of Man. He has a dual nature--God and Man at the same time.
As God:
Php 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
As God the Son who became Man:
Joh 14:28 "You have heard Me say to you, 'I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, 'I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.
As to His humanity, God the Father was greater than Him. But God the Son cannot un-God Himself even if He became man so that in one sense He was equal to God while in another, God the Father was greater than Him.
NemoySpruce
01-23-2008, 09:30 AM
thanks for helping me understand. my knowledge of the bible is not as extensive as yours. Some things really confuse me. Like the Holy Trinity, its actually a means for man to better understand God correct? there is only one God entity, but we created the Trinity to help us understand His 3 major aspects, God, Son of God and Holy Spirit. But in reality, it is only One entity. Jesus the man, does not exist anymore except in our imaginations, to help us remember that God became man to show us how to live, so that we may be saved. Because if he still existed separate from God, then that would mean Catholics worship 2 Gods and not one. This is very difficult for people to understand, so most Catholics today still envision 2 Gods, one is Jesus Christ(long hair, beard, around 33 years of age, wears robes and sandals, wounds on his hands, side and feet, thorns on head) , another is God the Father (usually an old man with white beard who lives in the sky), what confuses me is, if a catholic fails to understand this and unintentionally worships 2 Gods, will he or she end up in hell? or is ignorance an excuse in this case?
Yes, my friend the Lord Jesus is more than what He originally was. Besides being the Son of God, He was also the Son of Man. He has a dual nature--God and Man at the same time.
As God:
Php 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
As God the Son who became Man:
Joh 14:28 "You have heard Me say to you, 'I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, 'I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.
As to His humanity, God the Father was greater than Him. But God the Son cannot un-God Himself even if He became man so that in one sense He was equal to God while in another, God the Father was greater than Him.
Yes, my friend the Lord Jesus is more than what He originally was. Besides being the Son of God, He was also the Son of Man. He has a dual nature--God and Man at the same time.
As God:
Php 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
As God the Son who became Man:
Joh 14:28 "You have heard Me say to you, 'I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, 'I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.
As to His humanity, God the Father was greater than Him. But God the Son cannot un-God Himself even if He became man so that in one sense He was equal to God while in another, God the Father was greater than Him.
Hi Ironside, just a question.
When you said "He has a dual nature--God and Man at the same time.", did you mean that Jesus had the privileges of God for the duration of His time here on earth?
Ironside
01-25-2008, 02:43 AM
thanks for helping me understand. my knowledge of the bible is not as extensive as yours. Some things really confuse me. Like the Holy Trinity, its actually a means for man to better understand God correct? there is only one God entity, but we created the Trinity to help us understand His 3 major aspects, God, Son of God and Holy Spirit. But in reality, it is only One entity. Jesus the man, does not exist anymore except in our imaginations, to help us remember that God became man to show us how to live, so that we may be saved. Because if he still existed separate from God, then that would mean Catholics worship 2 Gods and not one. This is very difficult for people to understand, so most Catholics today still envision 2 Gods, one is Jesus Christ(long hair, beard, around 33 years of age, wears robes and sandals, wounds on his hands, side and feet, thorns on head) , another is God the Father (usually an old man with white beard who lives in the sky), what confuses me is, if a catholic fails to understand this and unintentionally worships 2 Gods, will he or she end up in hell? or is ignorance an excuse in this case?
My friend, if you dont mind. Can I direct you to Christian devotionals [post 130] about this one? You can PM me my friend if you have any questions about it.
Thanks
http://www.timog.com/forum/showthread.php?t=887 0&page=13
Ironside
01-25-2008, 02:51 AM
Hi Ironside, just a question.
When you said "He has a dual nature--God and Man at the same time.", did you mean that Jesus had the privileges of God for the duration of His time here on earth?
Hello there my friend. The Lord Jesus Christ was, is and will always be God [God the Son].
When He became a human being, He did not relinquish His Godhood. He was ever the God-Man while He walked in the land of Israel 2000 years ago and He will forever be the God-Man all throughout eternity!!!!!!
Hello there my friend. The Lord Jesus Christ was, is and will always be God [God the Son].
When He became a human being, He did not relinquish His Godhood. He was ever the God-Man while He walked in the land of Israel 2000 years ago and He will forever be the God-Man all throughout eternity!!!!!!
Thanks for your reply but I beg to differ. Just my own thoughts, when Jesus became a man didn't He deliberately forfeited the privileges of God. He exchanged omniscience for a human brain and learned to communicate. He swapped omnipresence for a pair of legs and learned to walk, and omnipotence for a set of arms strong enough to be a carpenter.
NemoySpruce
01-25-2008, 09:26 AM
Thats your reply? post 130 of that thread basically says the Trinity is illogical, but insists its true. Dont try to understand it, just accept it?
“Bring me a worm that can comprehend a man and I will show you a man that can comprehend the Trinity.”
This analogy does not work. a worm's neural network does not comprehend logic. Ours can...My reply would be, "Bring me a worm that can comprehend logic, and Ill teach it about the concept of God"..... Why would an omnipotent being write down instructions on how to avoid eternal damnation, but be unable to explain completely what some of the concepts in it are? So if we are worms, then isnt the bible written for us worms? and if its written in a way we cant understand, then whose fault is that?
Sorry Ironside, post 130 does not make any sense. Lets just discuss here, I believe we are still on topic.
My friend, if you dont mind. Can I direct you to Christian devotionals [post 130] about this one? You can PM me my friend if you have any questions about it.
Thanks
http://www.timog.com/forum/showthread.php?t=887 0&page=13
Ironside
01-25-2008, 06:20 PM
To aja:
I tried to send you a PM. Can you open up another thread about your questions so that we can discuss it there my friend?
thanks
To aja:
I tried to send you a PM. Can you open up another thread about your questions so that we can discuss it there my friend?
thanks
Hey Ironside, you don't have to answer my question but let me just express my own thoughts regarding this subject further. I'm not trying to disprove you or anything, just see if I'm making any sense here alright.
One of the reason God came to this planet in the person of Jesus is to re-acquaint humans to Him and to re-establish the connection between humans and God. In the old testament God was often described as a very angry, jealous and a punishing God. Through Jesus God wants us to know his intimate side, that He is a loving, caring, forgiving, and a generous God.
In the process God also was able to know and understand what it's like to be human. I suppose He already knew that but did He know what it feels like, I mean can He feel physical pain, He's a spirit right, He doesn't have flesh and bones like humans does.
So when God was reincarnated into a human in the person of Jesus and walked and lived amongst humans He gave up his Godly priveleges. He might have retained some of His unusual powers and able to perform many miracles but wasn't that manifestations of God's spirit that was in him.
All throughout the Gospels He was often described as having the need to pray and pray He did for hours at a time. If He has the privileges of God like you said, why does He need to pray, and who could He be praying to, certainly not to himself.
If I want to know what it's like to be a woman I have to become one. Then and only then that I'll feel what it's like to carry a child in the womb, to feel the pain of giving birth, and feel the joy of holding that little child into my arms. It's the only way that I'll be able to understand why women have closetfull of clothes or why they spend hours talking over the phone, my wife anyways (hi ladies, I don't mean to be rude...example lang po). Thanks.
Ironside
02-08-2008, 02:33 PM
Thanks for your reply but I beg to differ. Just my own thoughts, when Jesus became a man didn't He deliberately forfeited the privileges of God.
The orthodox doctrine of the Kenosis based on Philippians 2 is that He layed aside the outward semblance of Deity. Not His essential glory for God cannot unGod Himself. If we are allowed to go back in eternity past and be given the privilige to see with our own eyes the Son of God in all His blazing pre-incarnate glory, we would not for one moment fail to recognize Him as God indeed for His manifest essential attributes make Him obvious.
But let's say we go back in time to Israel 2000 years ago. We go to the market place and hear a Man preaching and teaching the people. We went closer and see Him there. We asked the question: "Who is this Man?"
It would be understandable for our part to ask this question for God the Son came here and veiled His pre-incarnate glory when He became Man.
He exchanged omniscience for a human brain and learned to communicate.
First, The brain is not the mind and vice versa. When we depart from this body of ours in death and our immaterial part separate from our brains, it does not mean we will lose our minds. In Hades or Heaven we will still have minds.
Second, Even though the Lord Jesus took a human body it does not mean His mind [and therefore His being omniscient] as God was limited.
Note: In Mark 13:32 He was speaking as a Man. As Man His knowledge and wisdom is limited. Luke 2:52 He had to increase in wisdom But as God He possessess all the treasures of knowledge and wisdom Col. 2:3
Some examples of the Lord's omniscience while He was here on earth
Joh 2:23 Now when He was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in His name when they saw the signs which He did.
24 But Jesus did not commit Himself to them, because He knew all men,
25 and had no need that anyone should testify of man, for He knew what was in man.
"He knew what was IN man" while He was here on earth. He only veiled His pre-incarnate glory when He became Man. He did not relinquish His natural and essential attributes----like for example His omniscience.
Mt 9:2 Then behold, they brought to Him a paralytic lying on a bed. When Jesus saw their faith, He said to the paralytic, "Son, be of good cheer; your sins are forgiven you."
Faith resides in the heart. No mere human being can see faith in it. It takes omniscience to see faith in the heart.
He swapped omnipresence for a pair of legs and learned to walk,
And yet He was able to say:
[The Lord speaking as a Man glorified on earth]
Mt 28:20 "teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen.
The Lord Jesus as Man is now in the right hand of God but He is said to be IN every saved person. "Christ IN you the hope of glory" [Col. 1:27]
As God-Man, He is physically in the right hand of God right now. And yet as God-Man He is IN every saved person.
Col 1:27 To them God willed to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles: which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.
Even if He became Man and yet the attribute of being omnipresent is still there. He chose not to exercise it before His resurrection.
and omnipotence for a set of arms strong enough to be a carpenter.
And yet the winds and the waves obey Him:
Mt 8:27 So the men marveled, saying, "Who can this be, that even the winds and the sea obey Him?"
He was able to raise people fromthe dead spiritually and physically. It takes omnipotence to raise people from the grave physically, much more when you raise someone from the grave spiritually.
Joh 2:19 Jesus answered and said to them, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
Speaking about His body, He said: I will raise it up.
What a carpenter!!!! Able to raise Himself from the dead. What declaration of omnipotence!!!
NemoySpruce
02-08-2008, 03:07 PM
So Jesus Christ is God disguised as man? if so, then God never became a man, just 'veiled' himself to look like a man. What would be the purpose?
Curiouser and curiouser :)
Ironside
02-08-2008, 06:37 PM
quoted from my previous post:
It would be understandable for our part to ask this question for God the Son came here and veiled His pre-incarnate glory when He became Man.
"I am that I am" or simply put I can be whatever I want to be.
God can be a human with no divine powers and an omnipotent, omniscience, and omnipresent spirit God all at the same time if he chooses to. From Jesus' conception up to his death - he lived a very tragic life - from rumors of illigitimacy to being sought after by authorities after his birth and finally to his wrongful conviction of a crime that was punishable by death. He never once displayed or used any divine powers to get himself out of any of those dangerous situations he found himself in.
Like every human, he was born with a brain - not yet a mind - and through his own human capabilities he learned to walk, talk and think for himself. As a child he learned to read and to speak Aramaic phoneme by phoneme like any other child during his time. Throughout the Gospels he showed a great love and faith for the Father and it's through his faith that afforded him his many gifts and one of them is the gift of healing. The same gift that his apostles received from the Holy Spirit for showing their faith that enabled them to heal many of the afflicted.
You and I can receive this gift too if we have a faith even as small as a mustard seed, we can move mountains if God wills it for us. The question is, do we have that kind of faith. Do we even have the kind of faith that Jesus saw on the paralytic man. A faith not only in our hearts but mostly through our actions, the one that Jesus saw. God wants us to love, worship, and have faith in Him not just in our hearts but through our deeds most specially. Jesus healed a dying Roman soldiers' servant through the faith that the Roman soldier showed.
If we have to be transported back in Jesus' time of course we will recognize and accept him as the son of God because of what we know of him now. Can you honestly say that if you have lived in Jesus' time that you will recognize and believe in him? Very few of his constant companions recognized his origin from God.
Thanks for letting me express my thoughts. Peace and God Bless.
Ironside
02-13-2008, 08:56 PM
"I am that I am" or simply put I can be whatever I want to be.
God can be a human with no divine powers and an omnipotent, omniscience, and omnipresent spirit God all at the same time if he chooses to. From Jesus' conception up to his death - he lived a very tragic life - from rumors of illigitimacy to being sought after by authorities after his birth and finally to his wrongful conviction of a crime that was punishable by death. He never once displayed or used any divine powers to get himself out of any of those dangerous situations he found himself in.
Like every human, he was born with a brain - not yet a mind - and through his own human capabilities he learned to walk, talk and think for himself. As a child he learned to read and to speak Aramaic phoneme by phoneme like any other child during his time. Throughout the Gospels he showed a great love and faith for the Father and it's through his faith that afforded him his many gifts and one of them is the gift of healing. The same gift that his apostles received from the Holy Spirit for showing their faith that enabled them to heal many of the afflicted.
You and I can receive this gift too if we have a faith even as small as a mustard seed, we can move mountains if God wills it for us. The question is, do we have that kind of faith. Do we even have the kind of faith that Jesus saw on the paralytic man. A faith not only in our hearts but mostly through our actions, the one that Jesus saw. God wants us to love, worship, and have faith in Him not just in our hearts but through our deeds most specially. Jesus healed a dying Roman soldiers' servant through the faith that the Roman soldier showed.
If we have to be transported back in Jesus' time of course we will recognize and accept him as the son of God because of what we know of him now. Can you honestly say that if you have lived in Jesus' time that you will recognize and believe in him? Very few of his constant companions recognized his origin from God.
Thanks for letting me express my thoughts. Peace and God Bless.
Your views are noted. But I would stick to the orthodox view---the Biblical view about the Kenosis. I hope that would be your last out of topic post my friend.
You can of course open new threads if you have any reaction to this thread.
Thanks for respecting the thread.
Your views are noted. But I would stick to the orthodox view---the Biblical view about the Kenosis. I hope that would be your last out of topic post my friend.
You can of course open new threads if you have any reaction to this thread.
Thanks for respecting the thread.
I didn't think I was being off-topic but if you view my questioning of your own "two cents" as such and if you think that your views are the absolute truth then pardon me for questioning.
Ironside
02-14-2008, 04:58 AM
I have requested the mod to delete the thread. I think the thread is all botched up. Thanks for taking time to read Dr. Isidro's annotations of the New Testament.
If anyone wishes to obtain a copy I can send it to you via mail. Just inform me through PM if you wished to have a copy.
Thanks so much.
NemoySpruce
02-14-2008, 12:48 PM
A Forum by definition is a medium for public discussion. It is not a medium for preaching. You posted Dr.Isidro text here and expect the users to just read it and accept your 2 cents and leave it alone? I dont think you quite understand what a forum is :D
I have requested the mod to delete the thread. I think the thread is all botched up. Thanks for taking time to read Dr. Isidro's annotations of the New Testament.
If anyone wishes to obtain a copy I can send it to you via mail. Just inform me through PM if you wished to have a copy.
Thanks so much.
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